Hi folks, this is something I've wondered about for a while, and in the past few days have seen a number of posts using either front-sear or reverse-sear techniques, as well as the quotes Meathead has provided from his upcoming book in a recent thread, and am prompted to pose this question.
We know that in a reverse sear, the meat is cooked on the cool side of a 2-zone setup to near its final target, then seared over high heat. In contrast, a front sear is to put the raw meat on the hot side first to sear, then over to the indirect side to bring it to temp. Fine and dandy.
What I'm wondering is whether the character of the sear would differ in these two setups. The meat is in a very different condition when raw than it is after having been brought close to finishing temp. Does the sear process happen differently if the meat is cold and raw compared to when it's already at near-final temp and has undergone significant change from the indirect cooking? Or more to the point, would it be different enough to matter? Are there any data on this from experiments?
My intuition is that the meat would react quite differently when cold and raw than when warm and close to done and getting juicy. And I can picture the way to do the experiment myself. But I'd love to know if there is a conventional wisdom on this before I do that - sort of like the literature search before setting up my own test
What say you?
We know that in a reverse sear, the meat is cooked on the cool side of a 2-zone setup to near its final target, then seared over high heat. In contrast, a front sear is to put the raw meat on the hot side first to sear, then over to the indirect side to bring it to temp. Fine and dandy.
What I'm wondering is whether the character of the sear would differ in these two setups. The meat is in a very different condition when raw than it is after having been brought close to finishing temp. Does the sear process happen differently if the meat is cold and raw compared to when it's already at near-final temp and has undergone significant change from the indirect cooking? Or more to the point, would it be different enough to matter? Are there any data on this from experiments?
My intuition is that the meat would react quite differently when cold and raw than when warm and close to done and getting juicy. And I can picture the way to do the experiment myself. But I'd love to know if there is a conventional wisdom on this before I do that - sort of like the literature search before setting up my own test

What say you?






I've already informed my lovely bride that we're going to have to have steak again this weekend, to which she replied, "Oh, darn."

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